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Subject: 
Re: gay by birth vs. gay by choice
Newsgroups: 
lugnet.off-topic.debate
Date: 
Tue, 4 Dec 2001 22:52:15 GMT
Viewed: 
266 times
  
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Bruce Schlickbernd writes:
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Kirby Warden writes:
If science can prove that a gay gene exists, then the Bible has also been
proven falacious.

It is neither here nor there.  If there is a gay gene, I don't see what the
Bible has to do with it.  That is a problem for the literalists to wrestle
with.

Just asking-- what problem is created for literalists? How does the literal
Bible (Old or New Testament) contradict the existance of a gay gene? I
honestly can't think of anything that WOULD contradict unless it said
somewhere that "God won't create someone who wants to sin any more than any
other person" or something like that. Everything I've ever heard in
reference to homosexuality in the Bible has been in the Old Testament, and
never about the origin of the desire to behave homosexually. It's always
referencing the act itself, which is not a direct result of the gay gene. So
either there IS a reference to the origin of the specific urge, or there is
a reference linking the desire to the origin of desires in general.

DaveE



Message has 1 Reply:
  Re: gay by birth vs. gay by choice
 
(...) Idunno - as I said, that's their problem to wrestle with (I am not a literalist). I'm tempted to say the problem is one of their own making, but I am hardly enough of a Bible scholar to actually say that with any certainty. I don't know of (...) (23 years ago, 4-Dec-01, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)

Message is in Reply To:
  Re: gay by birth vs. gay by choice
 
(...) It is neither here nor there. If there is a gay gene, I don't see what the Bible has to do with it. That is a problem for the literalists to wrestle with. (...) No, not at all, except that you seem to interpret the possiblity of a gay gene (...) (23 years ago, 4-Dec-01, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)

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