Subject:
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Re: gay by birth vs. gay by choice
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Newsgroups:
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lugnet.off-topic.debate
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Date:
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Tue, 4 Dec 2001 17:36:49 GMT
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Viewed:
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269 times
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In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Kirby Warden writes:
> If science can prove that a gay gene exists, then the Bible has also been
> proven falacious.
I'm really curious, because I just don't see how. Does the Bible say
"Gayness is by choice"? Does it say "Gayness is not genetic"? Just because
someone is genetically predisposed to sinning, does that absolve them from
the guilt of the sin? Aren't we genetically engineered as men to be
attracted to women, even if we're married? So what? Why can't Christianity
just say "the URGE isn't a sin, but the ACTING on the urge is the sin".
Which isn't quite to say that the act is the subject of judgement, but that
if the person WOULD act on their "sinful urge" that they'd be judged as a
sinner. I just don't understand how being gay by genetics affects
Christianity in the least...
DaveE
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Message has 1 Reply:
 | | Re: gay by birth vs. gay by choice
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| Why are you attempting to debate the very nature of Christianity. It has a written instruction perceived to be influenced by a devine entity and has power via the individuals who believe it. Christians are just as free as anybody to believe what (...) (23 years ago, 4-Dec-01, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)
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Message is in Reply To:
| | Re: gay by birth vs. gay by choice
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| (...) In my research I found that there were indeed a total of three tests that showed positive results, unfortuanately all three tests were performed by the same scientist. (...) If science can prove that a gay gene exists, then the Bible has also (...) (23 years ago, 4-Dec-01, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)
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