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Subject: 
Re: Copyright/Fair use question
Newsgroups: 
lugnet.off-topic.debate
Date: 
Fri, 8 Feb 2002 12:17:25 GMT
Viewed: 
351 times
  
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Frank Filz writes:

Every copy of a work which is shared without being paid for does
increase the cost to those who pay for their copies.

How?  If I give you a CD that I duped, that you would never in a million years
have purchased, I don't see how it effects the profits of the music company
that made the CD that I bought.  It just doesn't!

Same with books and software and everything.

All that said, I do kind of support the right of an author to enter a contract
with the consumer to behaver in certain ways.  I'm not sure how we should
handle how those copyrights should pertain to those not entered into such a
contract (like the recipient of pirated media).  I guess it seems to me that
all damages should cascade back to the contract participant.

While a certain
percentage of people don't have the money to pay for the art, I think
that's a really limited percentage, and it still cheapens the art.

How?

I have money to pay for art.  I spend it that way.  But not everything.  How
does it "cheapen the art" or hurt the producer if I borrow a book, CD,
whatever?

Chris



Message has 1 Reply:
  Re: Copyright/Fair use question
 
(...) If he wouldn't have purchased it a million years, then why would he want you to give a copy to him? If you're giving a copy to him because he wants it but wouldn't in a million years deign to purchase it, then it's theft. Same with books and (...) (23 years ago, 8-Feb-02, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)

Message is in Reply To:
  Re: Copyright/Fair use question
 
(...) It is true that copyrights are dominated by corporations, but the idea that the author should have control over his work is still valid. Limited sharing with friends should be encouraged since this will entice some of them to buy the work for (...) (23 years ago, 8-Feb-02, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)

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