Subject:
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Re: Christian morality (cont)
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Newsgroups:
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lugnet.off-topic.debate
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Date:
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Mon, 18 Dec 2000 22:39:52 GMT
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Viewed:
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1364 times
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Steve Thomas wrote in message ...
> a question we could ask is, Can someone consent
> to something that is by definition immoral?
Certainly. The recipient of a bribe, for example.
However, there's a possible landmine in your question: define "by definition
immoral" :-)
> If not, then in principle it
> would be impossible to give informed consent to any behavior that violates
> the principles behind marriage.
Which principles, yours or theirs or ???
Kevin
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Message is in Reply To:
 | | Re: Christian morality (cont)
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| Mr. Powell, Thanks for your feedback. You responded to part of what I had said as follows: (...) No, I'm not saying that at all in the sense in which you are using the term "marriage". I was not thinking of marriage in the legal sense, but in the (...) (26 years ago, 18-Dec-00, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)
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