Subject:
|
Re: Christian morality (cont)
|
Newsgroups:
|
lugnet.off-topic.debate
|
Date:
|
Mon, 18 Dec 2000 22:39:52 GMT
|
Viewed:
|
360 times
|
| |
|
|
Steve Thomas wrote in message ...
> a question we could ask is, Can someone consent
> to something that is by definition immoral?
Certainly. The recipient of a bribe, for example.
However, there's a possible landmine in your question: define "by definition
immoral" :-)
> If not, then in principle it
> would be impossible to give informed consent to any behavior that violates
> the principles behind marriage.
Which principles, yours or theirs or ???
Kevin
|
|
Message is in Reply To:
 | | Re: Christian morality (cont)
|
| Mr. Powell, Thanks for your feedback. You responded to part of what I had said as follows: (...) No, I'm not saying that at all in the sense in which you are using the term "marriage". I was not thinking of marriage in the legal sense, but in the (...) (24 years ago, 18-Dec-00, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)
|
34 Messages in This Thread:
 
 
- Entire Thread on One Page:
- Nested:
All | Brief | Compact | Dots
Linear:
All | Brief | Compact
|
|
|
|
