Subject:
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Re: Poll: Majority Palestinians See Israel's Elimination as Goal
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Newsgroups:
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lugnet.off-topic.debate
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Date:
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Wed, 19 Jun 2002 20:37:52 GMT
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Viewed:
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725 times
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In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Scott Arthur writes:
> In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Mike Petrucelli writes:
> > In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Christopher L. Weeks writes:
> > > In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Scott Arthur writes:
> > >
> > > > > There is no (historic) Palestine. There is no such thing as Palestinians. • The
> > > > > whole concept was made up during the last 50 years so 'we' could stop • calling
> > > > > them Arab refugees.
> > >
> > > > However, you are quite wrong. The Balfour declaration (1917) quite clearly
> > > > referred to the area as “Palestine”. I have no idea when it was first • called
> > > > that, but it is certainly not a post 48’ construct.
> > >
> > > Is the claim that "Palestine" was made up in '48? I thought that 2500 years
> > > ago Heroditus called the land that had been occupied by the Philistines by • the
> > > name of Palestine. Though I know there are references suggesting that the • name
> > > of that land is older. It hardly seems like a modern creation.
> > >
> > > All that said, the 3000 years of history in that area certainly clouds the
> > > genetic waters. Modern natives of that area are a mix of what used to be • many
> > > ethnic groups including Jews, Philistines and many others. I expect that
> > > there's more ethnic similarity between modern Palestinians and Jews than • there
> > > is between either group and their named ancestral progenitors.
> > >
> > > Chris
> >
> > Ok let me clarify. No one that was living on the land ever called it • Palestine
> > or called themselves Palestinians. The current group of 'Arab refugees' have
> > adopted the name I assume to reinforce their 'ancestoral' ties to the land.
> > Which is odd given that in 1948 most of them had not even been there for more
> > than 2 or 3 years. (That is why the U.N. redefined the term 'refugee' to
> > represent anyone who had been living on 'land X' for 2 or more years.)
>
>
> This is interesting. Let's just assume you are correct for a moment. Two
> sceneries to consider:
>
> 1948
> A "Palestinian" family has been living on a plot of land for 3 years. The
> Israel army happens along and bulldozes the family’s house in their usual
> manner. Have the family not the right to compensation at the very least?
>
> 2002
> A "Palestinian" family has been living on a plot of land for 57 years. The
> Israel army happens along and bulldozes their house in their usual manner to
> build a "settlement" to house economic refugees from Eastern Europe. Have
> the family not the right to compensation at the very least?
>
> I read a report the other day that claimed that ~50% of suicide bombers are
> from families who were made refugees in '48. ~25% suicide bombers' families
> blamed their actions on a specific event perpetrated by the IDF - usually
> the killing of a child. I hate the suicide bombings, but I can't help
> wondering if Israel is partly to blame for them.
>
> Scott A
A History lesson is obviously needed here. After World War 2 the newly founded
United Nations decided to create a Jewish State so they would never be
subjected to a holocaust again. The plot of land they choose had an ethnic
majority of Jews living on it since at least World War 1. The surrounding Arab
countries, in an atempt to convince the U.N. not to create the country there,
sent thousands of people to settle in the land. The U.N. ignored this ruse to
show an Arab ethnic majority and created Israel anyway. At this point the Arab
countries forced their Jewish citizens into the newly founded country. Most
Arabs who had been sent there, fled Israel of their own accord. The very same
Arab leaders who sent them, refused to let them back into their 'historical'
homes and herded them into refugee camps. This was done so they could easily
'reclaim' the land when the Israelis were removed from it.
-Mike Petrucelli
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