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Hi Mark,
"Mark Bellis" <mark.bellis@tiscali.co.uk> writes:
>
> could say that the power of the motor is proportional to the square of the
> proportion of time for which power is applied.
is it really true that there is a square law for PWM?
Can you explain the reason why this is so?
I understand that this is true if you change the voltage
(half the voltage gives half the current so a quarter of the power).
But I always thought that this was different for PWM,
where you have full voltage, full current and full power
for part of the time, and zero voltage, zero current and zero power
for the rest.
But then this might be too naive, as I'm not an expert
on electrical motors, especially not the dynamical properties.
Greetings
Jürgen
--
NO to software patents -- stop the European patents directive
Jürgen Stuber <juergen@jstuber.net>
http://www.jstuber.net/
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