Subject:
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Re: Does God have a monopoly on gods?
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Newsgroups:
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lugnet.off-topic.debate
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Date:
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Sun, 5 Mar 2000 08:20:31 GMT
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Viewed:
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1312 times
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In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Ben Roller writes:
> In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Peter Callaway writes:
> > It's on what he did do. He did call God "Father" and "He", and therefore we
> > (Christians) do too.
>
> I'm not saying that referring to God as masculine is wrong, just that doing
> otherwise is equally right. You're implying that doing otherwise means that
> someone is not a Christian. That's the silly part IMHO.
>
> Ben Roller
Well, as *some people* may say, Christians try to model their life on Jesus.
Since I can't prove that Jesus referred to God in the feminine, but can prove
He referred to God in the masculine, that's what I'm gonna do.
I didn't mean to imply that one's Christian status was entirely dependent on
how one referred to God, and my apologies if that's how I'm coming across. But
I still think that Jesus has given us the example on how to address God.
Pete Callaway
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Message is in Reply To:
 | | Re: Does God have a monopoly on gods?
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| (...) I'm not saying that referring to God as masculine is wrong, just that doing otherwise is equally right. You're implying that doing otherwise means that someone is not a Christian. That's the silly part IMHO. Ben Roller (25 years ago, 5-Mar-00, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)
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