Subject:
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Re: Does God have a monopoly on gods?
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Newsgroups:
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lugnet.off-topic.debate
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Date:
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Sun, 5 Mar 2000 05:44:22 GMT
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Viewed:
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1329 times
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In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Peter Callaway writes:
> It's on what he did do. He did call God "Father" and "He", and therefore we
> (Christians) do too.
I'm not saying that referring to God as masculine is wrong, just that doing
otherwise is equally right. You're implying that doing otherwise means that
someone is not a Christian. That's the silly part IMHO.
Ben Roller
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Message has 1 Reply:
 | | Re: Does God have a monopoly on gods?
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| (...) Well, as *some people* may say, Christians try to model their life on Jesus. Since I can't prove that Jesus referred to God in the feminine, but can prove He referred to God in the masculine, that's what I'm gonna do. I didn't mean to imply (...) (25 years ago, 5-Mar-00, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)
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