Subject:
|
Re: Does God have a monopoly on gods?
|
Newsgroups:
|
lugnet.off-topic.debate
|
Date:
|
Sun, 5 Mar 2000 05:44:22 GMT
|
Viewed:
|
1134 times
|
| |
|
|
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Peter Callaway writes:
> It's on what he did do. He did call God "Father" and "He", and therefore we
> (Christians) do too.
I'm not saying that referring to God as masculine is wrong, just that doing
otherwise is equally right. You're implying that doing otherwise means that
someone is not a Christian. That's the silly part IMHO.
Ben Roller
|
|
Message has 1 Reply:
 | | Re: Does God have a monopoly on gods?
|
| (...) Well, as *some people* may say, Christians try to model their life on Jesus. Since I can't prove that Jesus referred to God in the feminine, but can prove He referred to God in the masculine, that's what I'm gonna do. I didn't mean to imply (...) (24 years ago, 5-Mar-00, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)
|
Message is in Reply To:
541 Messages in This Thread:
(Inline display suppressed due to large size. Click Dots below to view.)
- Entire Thread on One Page:
- Nested:
All | Brief | Compact | Dots
Linear:
All | Brief | Compact
This Message and its Replies on One Page:
- Nested:
All | Brief | Compact | Dots
Linear:
All | Brief | Compact
|
|
|
|
