Subject:
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Re: Did animals have rights before we invented rights?
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Newsgroups:
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lugnet.off-topic.debate
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Date:
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Tue, 3 Jul 2001 14:19:47 GMT
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Viewed:
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1111 times
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In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Scott Arthur writes:
> In lugnet.off-topic.debate, David Eaton writes:
> > Chris:
> > > > Neither the lion nor the wildebeest is concerned with
> > > > morality. It is an action completely without moral regard. It is
> > > > therefore amoral. But not immoral.
> >
> > Scott:
> > > I agree.
>
> My position is that we should not infer human characteristics on animals. We
> should judge them by their standards - not ours.
No no, your position on whether animals are moral/immoral OR amoral. Do you
think they are moral/immoral or amoral?
If your position is in fact the one above then you wouldn't be allowing
yourself to even HAVE an opinion on the issue, and yet above you attribute
amorality to the wildebeest's action, and at the same time disagree with
Larry, which means you hold that animals MAY be moral, allowing for
attribution of moral consideration.
You can perhaps save yourself by saying that you meant that the ACTION, but
not the ANIMAL is amoral, but then you still run into the issue above.
> > Don't all morally conscious
> > creatures pass moral judgement?
>
> By doing so we infer our morals on them - rather conceited I think.
Ah, so all morality is conceited? If not, please clarify.
> > If not, then what's the point (read use) of
> > having a moral judgement? If so, then what standard can we judge against
> > except our own?
>
> The morals of the societies we live in - not our individual morals.
Ah. So judging by the moral standards of society, we arrive at a morality
which is not conceited? In order to avoid conceit we must judge according to
that which others believe, and not ourselves, at least not solely? To what
extent are we a member of that society? To what extent are certain others?
Can we pass judgement on society? How about the abscence of society? Whose
society?
DaveE
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