Subject:
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Re: Preposterously simple stat question
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Newsgroups:
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lugnet.off-topic.geek
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Date:
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Tue, 21 Jun 2005 17:51:35 GMT
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Viewed:
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2084 times
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In lugnet.off-topic.geek, Larry Pieniazek wrote:
> > It seems to me that if (in a different example) you randomly pick a number
> > between 1 and 10 and I have to guess it, my chances of getting it right are one
> > in ten regardless of whether I stick with the same choice or re-shuffle it each
> > time (assuming that you likewise randomly re-select your number each time). Is
> > this correct?
>
> Yes.
>
> > And does it also apply to a 40-digit lottery pool?
>
> Yes, if it's a fair draw.
Intuitively I sensed that numbers-is-numbers, but I couldn't logic it out enough
to settle my brain on the matter.
Thanks for the clarification!
Dave!
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Message is in Reply To:
 | | Re: Preposterously simple stat question
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| (...) Statistically, assuming it's a fair draw, there should be no difference, as this is a draw with replacement (each time you start drawing 6 numbers, all 40 are there) at the start of the draw, between any 6 numbers. Non statistically, that is, (...) (19 years ago, 21-Jun-05, to lugnet.off-topic.geek)
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