Subject:
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Re: polygyny in "biblical times"
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Newsgroups:
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lugnet.off-topic.debate
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Date:
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Mon, 19 Jul 2004 23:45:58 GMT
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Viewed:
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1352 times
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In lugnet.off-topic.debate, John Neal wrote:
> In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Scott Arthur wrote:
> > In lugnet.off-topic.debate, John Neal wrote:
> > > In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Allister McLaren wrote:
> > > >
> > > > Shameless diversion aside, I agree. Let's get back to biblical principles.
> > > > How many wives and concubines did Soloman have again?
> >
> > This is very OT (excuse the pun); for a NT ref see Matthew 25:1-12: "...the
> > kingdom of heaven be likened unto ten virgins, which took their lamps, and
> > went forth to meet the bridegroom...." ;)
>
> Why don't you leave the exogesis of the Bible to those who know what they are
> talking about (as you obviously don't).
> > >
> > > Relevance? (as if polygamy was a "biblical principle").
> >
> > (I think you mean {polygyny}).
>
> The point is moot, to Christians at least. Jesus' teaching on the subject is
> clear, as He quotes from Genesis (capitalized):
>
> "And He answered and said, "Have you not read that He who created them from
> the beginning MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE, and said, `FOR THIS REASON A MAN
> SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO
> SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'? "So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What
> therefore God has joined together, let no man separate." Matthew 19:4-6
>
> [JOHN]
Yep, you've just lost any sense of moral ground--"let no man separate". As long
as "man" is separating, you've got nothing. Get rid of divorce (man separating
the covenant that 'God joined'), get rid of adultery and coveting, and then we
may begin to even take this 'religious argument against gay marriages' seriously
(but no, not even then really, for it still goes against the gays rights to
'life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness (a.k.a. US law)' which *legally*
trumps whatever the Bible says.
And I will point out to you, again, that this discussion isn't telling
Christians that they have to allow gay marriages in tehir parish, but the US
laws and government, being a-religious (without religion) isn't subservient to
Jesus' teachings in the Bible. Therefore, you cannot use Matthew 19:4-6, or any
other verse of the Bible, as the basis of US laws or for overturning
constitutional rights.
The final analysis--perfectly legal for a church to refuse to perform marraiges,
or anything else, they do not, under their idea of whatever religious belief
they ascribe to, believe in.
Perfectly legal for a government institution, under the Constitution (or Charter
of Rights and Freedoms here in Canada) that is legally allowed to perform
marriages, to perform gay marraiges.
Where's the issue?
Dave K
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Message has 2 Replies:
 | | Re: polygyny in "biblical times"
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| (...) Don't forget anullment which is the Catholics' way of getting around that little religious entanglement. (...) Now, see, there you're just restricting the rights of the citizenry to break their solemn vows. That'll never fly (heck, in (...) (20 years ago, 20-Jul-04, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)
| | | Re: polygyny in "biblical times"
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| (...) This discussion is about the definition of marriage, Dave. How would you define it? (...) The issue is whether the state has a vested interest in recognizing marriages or not. JOHN (20 years ago, 20-Jul-04, to lugnet.off-topic.debate, FTX)
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Message is in Reply To:
| | Re: polygyny in "biblical times"
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| (...) Why don't you leave the exogesis of the Bible to those who know what they are talking about (as you obviously don't). (...) The point is moot, to Christians at least. Jesus' teaching on the subject is clear, as He quotes from Genesis (...) (20 years ago, 19-Jul-04, to lugnet.off-topic.debate, FTX)
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