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Subject: 
Re: Be careful what you ask for in case you actually get it (was: slight)
Newsgroups: 
lugnet.off-topic.debate
Date: 
Thu, 18 Jul 2002 16:40:50 GMT
Viewed: 
3968 times
  
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Dave Schuler writes:
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, David Koudys writes:

It seems that you are suggesting that the nature of "a god" is to
"tell...*everything*?"  Or at least that that is one facet of godhood.  Yet,
the god you follow doesn't do that. So I'm left not clearly understanding the
reasoning behind your assertion.

What does it matter what reasons are behind the assertion--the assertion is
valid or it isn't, no matter what worldview it comes out of--the theory of
gravity is still the theory of gravity even to those that don't know what a
theory or gravity is.

Since you cast aspersions on Chris' reading comprehension in
http://news.lugnet.com/off-topic/debate/?n=17304
it is inexcusable that you should fail to read his subsequent post
correctly.  He is not questioning the "reasons" for your assertion; he's
questioning the "reasoning" for it.  Can you see the difference?  If not,
then I suggest you sign up for the RC101 class you mentioned.

And I mention to you, Dave! right now, that questioning 'the reasoning for
the assertion' instead of the 'reasons' for it, makes my point *even* more
clear--

If I were to ask:

Is black,  black?

I have my reasons for saying that this should be answered 'yes' and I could
go into my scientific reasonings for it, but what does it matter?  The
question, 'Is black, black?' is the question--the person behind the question
is completely irrelevant, as is his reasoning for thinking this is
true--sure it may lead into other areas and other aspects of a bigger
conversation, but you don't have to know *my* reasoning to answer the
question.  I don't need to know *your* reasoning, I just need to know your
answer--the support comes later, where we have to *defend* our answer.

If scientific rationality separates the extraneous, then separate it.  If
science makes no value judgements or 'cares' where something, or someone
comes from, what does it matter what *my* reasonings are?

Does science encompass *everything*?


Merely that science is the only rational method of exploration of any
phenomena.

I would put it to you that the assertion that *any* phenomena logically
encompasses *all* phenomena.

If you were to modify your assertion that science is the only rational
method of exploring rational phenomena, then that's not *everything* then,
is it?

Chris may be the most adamant proponent of his view, but I share it with
nearly equal verve, and I'll go so far as to state my view thus:
"If a phenomenon exists in the physical universe that can in principal be
explained, then it can be in principal be explained by science."

And I would agree totally with that assertion.  Yes it does not infer that
there *is* a god.  However, it does not infer the opposite, either.

That is the end of this particular debate for me.  If you want to discuss
concepts of stuff *outside* science, that's a 'bigger' discussion.


And as Chris correctly observed, you have yet to demonstrate how that might
be false.

I never said it was false--I have repeatedly agreed that statement to be true.


Is my *faith* a phenomena?  I don't know--never thought about it that way.
But I *do* have it.  It might not be scientifically rational, but it is
there--it *does* exist--I *can* say that my faith exists, therefore
*something* is *outside* the purview of science.  Science cannot, with logic
and rationality, deny it--it's there, and yet science cannot dispense with
it, either, for it's not rational--it does not exist within the domain of
science.

NO NO NO NO NO NO NO!  You are YET AGAIN misstating the case!  If you can't
get it together enough to assemble two coherent posts, I don't see how you
can expect anyone to wish to discuss this with you.  Here is what you are
saying:

P1: My faith exists
P2: Phenomena can be explained by science
P3: I don't know if my faith is a phenomena [sic]
-----------------------------------
C1: I don't know if my faith can be explained by science
C2: My faith is *outside* the purview of science

This is CLASSIC argument from ignorance, and is a CLASSIC paraphrase of the
God-of-the-gaps that you allege to decry.  Because you, in your endlessly
demonstrable misunderstanding of science, cannot figure out or accept how
something might be explained by science, you are ASSUMING (not concluding,
since you are not basing it on anything) that science truly can't explain
it, so therefore it must be outside the purview of science.

No, if it's a classic example of something, it's the ardent belief that
science *should* be able to explain everything.  'because you, in your
endlessly demonstrable misunderstanding of science, cannot figure out or
accept how something might be explained by science'

I have *no* issue with the idea that science can explain stuff.  It has the
*potential* to explain the entire physical universe.  *I* never said
otherwise.  My belief, my faith, call it an assumption if you will, is that
something *could* exist outside the 'entire physical universe', outside the
'potential' of science.

If it is an invalid *assumption*, prove it--prove to me that something that
is outside a domain, can be proved non-existent by the ways and means
*inside* that domain.  (and I'll get to what you wrote below in a sec).


Look at it this way:

P1: Perception is a function of the senses
P2: The senses are a function of the brain
--------------------------------------
C1: Perception is a function of the brain

C1: Perception is a function of the brain
P3: The brain is part of the physical universe
P4: In the absence of a better descriptor, science
     is the best descriptor of the physical universe
----------------------------------------
C2: In the absence of a better descriptor, science
     is the best descriptor of the brain


And until this point, we have no problem.

except I would have a 0th P:

P0:  Something *may* exist outside perception.

C1: Perception is a function of the brain
P5: One's awareness of one's faith is a function of perception

With P0, P5 doesn't read right, and, therefore, neither does the rest of the
arguement.

If one's awareness of 'something outside perception' is *solely* determined
by a function of preception, then yes, it makes logical sense that something
outside cannot, therefore exist.  However, there's that P0 thing--the fly in
the ointment, the squeak in the wheel (oh no, he lapsed into literary
devices again...).  If we use science to try to understand 'non-science'
where will that get us?

(non-science being anything that may exist outside the scientific realm)

Note how P0 has no bearing on P1 thru C2.  None whatsoever.  The conclusion
C2 is *as* valid with P0 in place, or without P0 in place.


---------------------------------------
C3: One's awareness of one's faith is a function of the brain

C3: One's awareness of one's faith is a function of the brain
C2: In the absence of a better descriptor, science
     is the best descriptor of the brain
---------------------------------------
C4: In the absence of a better descriptor, science
     is the best descriptor of one's awareness of one's faith

That's the key.  You can prattle away about how "your awareness of your
faith" isn't "your faith," but the distinction is semantic and trivial.  If
there's a real difference between your faith and your perception of it, then
God is potentially condemning you (or someone else) for something of which
you have no awareness, and that's a fundamental contradiction that would
prove the non-existence of an infinitely just God.

I hope that clears it up.

I'm done beating my head against the impenetrable shell of ignorance in
which you've encased yourself.  You don't comprehend the nature of science,
and you certainly don't comprehend the methods of debate, yet still you're
firing randomly into a DEBATE about SCIENCE!

    Dave!

Again I remind you, sir, that this is a debate about science encompassing
*all*, and not just about science.

P0:  Something may exist outside the physical universe.
P1:  Science can explain the physical universe.
--
C1:  Science cannot explain anything outside the physical universe.

Dave K.
(and I mentioned before, I'm not the best typist in the world, and sometimes
when I write so fast there will be grammatical gaffs and spelling slips, but
if you want to put the [sic] after them, please go ahead--I'll endeavour to
be more careful in my non-pluralizing the word phenomenon.)



Message has 1 Reply:
  Re: Be careful what you ask for in case you actually get it (was: slight)
 
(This is a very interesting thread to follow, imo :) something isn't right here: (...) no, C1 will only follow if P1 said: P1: Science can explain only the physical universe. Which is not the claim that was made, I believe. I'm not sure what would (...) (22 years ago, 18-Jul-02, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)

Message is in Reply To:
  Re: Be careful what you ask for in case you actually get it (was: slight)
 
(...) Since you cast aspersions on Chris' reading comprehension in (URL) is inexcusable that you should fail to read his subsequent post correctly. He is not questioning the "reasons" for your assertion; he's questioning the "reasoning" for it. Can (...) (22 years ago, 18-Jul-02, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)

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