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Subject: 
Re: Hiroshima-Was It Necessary?
Newsgroups: 
lugnet.off-topic.debate
Date: 
Thu, 18 Oct 2001 04:56:13 GMT
Viewed: 
597 times
  
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Lindsay Frederick Braun writes:
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Ross Crawford writes:
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Lindsay Frederick Braun writes:
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Ross Crawford writes:
In lugnet.off-topic.debate, Lindsay Frederick Braun writes:

  The most devastating war in ALL of human history is a very
  hard thing to Monday-morning quarterback.  In a total war,
  how much is too much?  Historians try to put themselves into
  the contextual position, and to figure out who knew what, when,
  and why they might have made the decisions they did.  And to
  my satisfaction--both personal *and* professional--the right
  decision was made.  Indeed, it was the only politically and
  strategically--in the long term--viable decision given the
  context of 1945.

That is open to argument, but I don't have enough knowledge of politics at • the
time, so I'll bow to your greater knowledge. But though it's changing the
subject of the thread, I still believe the acts of dropping the bombs were
terrorism, no matter whether or not they were necessary / justifiable.

  By that definition,

I see no definition there, only opinion.

  I think you've defined, although in your opinion, that the bombings
  were terrorism.  That's actually a pretty good analogy--the word
  "terrorism" has a semantic load, as does "definition."  Is it a
  subjective or objective term?  I'm not making a particular argument
  with you here, but those matters do bear thinking about when we
  use a particular descriptor.

I gave Aug 45 as an "example" of terrorism. No attempt at definition. I've
*never* considered "definition" a subjective term, however, I *do* consider
"terrorism" subjective (as I outlined here
http://news.lugnet.com/off-topic/debate/?n=13695)

So if you consider terrorism a subjective term, how can it have a single
definition?

*any* act taken in a military conflict is
  "terrorism."

I've made my distinction several times before - attacks on *military targets* • I
don't consider terrorism.

The major difference

Compared to what?

is that the civilians of Japan
  had no basis for an *expectation* of safety

????? So what???? What has their "expectation of safety" to do with whether • or
not it was terrorism?

  In the case of war, it has a lot to do with it.  The argument can
  reasonably be made that in total war--like WWII, and perhaps even
  WWI--there *are* no non-combatants.  This is because the war effort
  is vertically integrated across the *entire* home front.  How do
  we decide?  Do we draw an arbitrary line?  Are war-industry workers,
  railway workers, or unmobilized reservists "military" targets?
  I'd argue that they *are* in the context of a fully militarized and
  regimented society at war.  My point is that you can't draw the
  distinction.

  And what happens when you've clearly crushed the enemy on the
  battlefield, yet they still swear resistance to the very end?

Again, you gave a "definition" of terrorism and are now adding more subjective
clauses to it. I saw nothing regarding "expectation of safety" in your quoted
"definition".

--especially when you
  consider what happened to Tokyo in March, and virtually every
  *other* Japanese city (and even their own, lightly) within the
  preceding year.

Are you saying you don't consider Aug 45 terrorism because of the
indiscriminate firebombing of Tokyo in March?

  Re-read that.  No expectation of safety in war, modified by a
  direct knowledge of what's happening to other Japanese cities,
  is the point there.  Total war has already come home; the smart
  thing would be to head for the countryside.

OK, that was a rhetorical question, I'm glad you found it as absurd as I did.

  They were a nation at war, fully mobilized, and prepared for
  defence (in fact, they went into the shelters at first).  The
  weapon was dropped from a US plane, with limited escort.  I'd
  call that very, very, very straightforward.  War causes terror,
  as well it should--but terrorism is defined as:

  "The unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence by a person
  or an organized group against people or property with the intention
  of intimidating or coercing societies or governments, often for
  ideological or political reasons."  (American Heritage)

I've seen many attempted definitions of terrorism. Many are similar to this. • So
let's go with it for now.

  Seems to me that in a declared war, by standards of international
  law articulated to that time, the bombing was lawful.  (In fact,
  I defy you to locate pre-1945 evidence that it was not.)

Check out http://www.dannen.com/decision/int-law.html Particularly: • Protection
of Civilian Populations Against Bombing From the Air in Case of War, League • of
Nations, September 30, 1938

  Not applicable.  The United States and Japan, if not also Germany,
  were not signatories--they were not members of the League.  With
  the experience of WWI still very fresh in people's minds, I'd be
  very surprised if even Britain and France didn't have issues with
  this particular statement, because it puts the power in the hands
  of those willing to violate its tenets.

  In fact, nothing on that site addresses total war

So anything goes if it's a situation which hasn't been foreseen (or explicitly
considered)?

--the ratified item
  from 1907 predates the era of total war (I don't count the Russo-
  Japanese and Second Anglo-Boer Wars); the others, regardless of
  the intent, were never ratified.  In the case of the 1938 piece, I'd
  bet those who pushed it through were playing on the Spanish Civil War
  and the destruction of Guernica.  That act was rather different than
  the bombing of Japan--there's no way Guernica could have been classed
  as a military target, and regardless of Legion Condor's affiliation,
  Germany was not at war with the Republicans, and there was no military
  goal to the bombing.

I don't know enogh about those events to comment.

  And note
  that it says "organized group" for the actor and "government" for the
  target, which implies that there must also be a severe disparity
  of power between the terrorist and the target of terror.

In your opinion. It doesn't give any limit on the size of the group (or the
size of the government / society).

  No, it doesn't, but the semantic implication is there.  It takes
  willful disregard to deny that.

In your opinion.

You can
  argue that Japan's power in 1945 wasn't even the merest shadow of
  the U.S.'s, but that's taking the historical moment out of context
  and reversing the expected relationship.

  So no, I don't believe it was "terrorism" as the term is generally
  defined.  It caused terror, but it was an act of destruction in
  war, not terrorism against a society at peace.  I'd also argue that
  Pearl Harbor wasn't a terrorist attack, nor was Port Arthur.

Pearl Harbour: Definitely a military target, so not terrorism.
Port Arthur: No attempt to coerce anyone - just a massacre resulting from the
wrong person getting access to firearms & too much money. Certainly not
terrorism.

  Uh, I think the wires are crossed.  I'm talking about Port Arthur,
  1904 (Japanese surprise attack on the Russian naval station).  What
  did you think I was talking about?  I'm curious.

Yep! As I said, my historical knowledge isn't anywhere near yours! I was
talking about the massacre at Port Arthur (Tasmania) in 1996
(http://www.crimelibrary.com/serial/bryant/index.htm). Guess the fact that I
lived about an hour down the road at the time influenced my mind-set.

  Attempting to equate military acts against specific targets during
  war with terror attacks against civilians during peacetime is, IMHO,
  dead wrong.

Tow points here:

1. Change it to "...specific military targets..." and I totally agree.

  See above.  My objection is that defining "specific military targets"
  as opposed to civilian ones in the context of total war is both
  unrealistic *and* impossible.

I think it's unrealistic to say Nagasaki was a military target. Total war or
not.

2. bin Laden has declared war on the US, so it's not peacetime, no matter • what
the citizens of the US want to think. He's given several warnings in the • past,
and people chose not to do anything (when did all the talk about increased
security begin?)

  If bin Laden lays claim to a chunk of land and screams "This is
  Binladenia, and we hereby declare war on the USA" then yes, I'll
  allow him that.  But just because some twit--even a rich one--
  declares a personal war on the USA doesn't make it legitimate.
  Definitely not in the sense that WWII was a declared war.

I think the bombing of some US interests around the world makes it slightly
more formal than a twit declaring a personal war. How legitimate does it have
to be?

  And, if it were possible for him to declare a war, why hasn't
  Congress passed a formal declaration of war against bin Laden?
  Because it's ridiculous.  He's not a country, he's an (annoying
  and dangerous, admittedly) insect.

So why are we committing troops to a war that hasn't been declared?

So I think it *is* valid to compare Aug 45 with Sep 11, though the method and
overall size of the two were significantly different, they were both (IMHO)
terrorist acts.

  Again, we disagree, though I can see your reasoning.  The problem
  is that "terrorist" includes a certain semantic load that really
  isn't applicable to Hiroshima--horrific, yes; terrible, yes; but
  "terrorist" in a way implies that it was unjustifiable *and* that it
  was on a relatively small scale, both of which are untrue.  Hiroshima
  belongs in a class by itself, but only barely given the fates of
  Tokyo and Dresden in the late days of the war.

Again, you've brought in ideas that aren't in the definition you quoted. And
I'm happy with that concept, as I don't think the definition is complete (or
possible) anyway. So it seems our difference of opinion stems from our
differing notions of terrorism, which I'm happy with, too. I don't agree that
terrorism implies unjustifyable, or that it implies any sort of scale. Maybe it
does belong in a class of its own, but I still think that class would be a
sub-class of terrorism.

  I wonder, though--would you also class US unrestricted submarine
  warfare (the #1 reason for the shorting of Japan's ability to fight)
  and Doolittle's Raid as terrorism?  What about Bomber Command's
  night raids on German cities that brought the Luftwaffe down on
  London and thus saved the R.A.F.?  And, of course, are you using
  "terrorist" as a semantically neutral word or one with a necessary
  and negative moral connotation (the latter of which I think it now
  most certainly has)?

I'll have to do some more reading before I'm prepared to comment on those.

ROSCO



Message is in Reply To:
  Re: Hiroshima-Was It Necessary?
 
(...) I think you've defined, although in your opinion, that the bombings were terrorism. That's actually a pretty good analogy--the word "terrorism" has a semantic load, as does "definition." Is it a subjective or objective term? I'm not making a (...) (23 years ago, 18-Oct-01, to lugnet.off-topic.debate)

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